In a long-awaited report, the State Department lays out numerous suspected international humanitarian violations by Israel in its war on Gaza, yet suggests no changes in policy or consequences.
The Biden administration concludes it is likely that Israel used U.S.-supplied weapons in “incidents that raise concerns” about the country’s legal compliance, while crediting Israel for investigating them.
The report also concludes Israel is not currently blocking humanitarian aid, despite “deep concerns” about “action and inaction” by the government resulting in aid delivery to Gaza that “remains insufficient.”
Is it just me or does the report state that Israel is blocking aid? The legalese might make a distinction between ‘technically blocking aid’ and ‘doing everything in your power to slow, delay, and otherwise mitigate aid’… but that’s exactly what a layperson would call blocking aid.
They have to choose words carefully lest they accidentally trigger some process. But they did just describe what a smarmy country does to block aid while maintaining plausible (big stretch of the word) deniability.
I do not understand this either
I read " yes Israel committed war crimes but also we are not sure if Israel committed war crimes."