The other day, I was arguing with someone israel and Palestine, and they brought up the whole “everybody has done settler colonialism before” trope. While it’s an idiotic argument even if true (directly contradicting their whole “rules based international order” sthick), it did get me wondering.
I’ve assumed up until now that settler colonialism is a phenomena unique to the capitalist phase of history, but how true is that exactly?
This is more medieval than ancient, the Crusader states in modern-day Palestine and Lebanon might be considered settler states, and Germans settler-colonized East Prussia (modern-day Kaliningrad) and completely wiped out the natives.